I'm hoping that someone can explain this to me.
Watching the Padre game tonight and going to the top of the ninth they're leading 7-1.
Two outs and Arizona has a runner on first who takes second base on defensive indifference.
The batter then gets a base hit scoring the runner from second. Looking at the box score the pitcher was charged with an earned run. The runner who scored didn't earn second base and would not have scored from first on the single so why is it an earned run?
IMHO if you're going to score it an earned run you have to give the guy a stolen base. I understand the defensive indifference rule but if I was a pitcher I'd be ticked off that I get charged with an earned run because my team didn't play giving the runner the base.
I hope what I'm saying makes sense because to me the rule doesn't.
Watching the Padre game tonight and going to the top of the ninth they're leading 7-1.
Two outs and Arizona has a runner on first who takes second base on defensive indifference.
The batter then gets a base hit scoring the runner from second. Looking at the box score the pitcher was charged with an earned run. The runner who scored didn't earn second base and would not have scored from first on the single so why is it an earned run?
IMHO if you're going to score it an earned run you have to give the guy a stolen base. I understand the defensive indifference rule but if I was a pitcher I'd be ticked off that I get charged with an earned run because my team didn't play giving the runner the base.
I hope what I'm saying makes sense because to me the rule doesn't.