No, my question is highlighting the flawed assumption underlying your question about precedent.
This information comes courtesy of knoxtncat over at HOB, so credit to him for this.
"Colorado faced a similar situation with a football recruit and an article about the situation summarized what Bilas was referencing:
NCAA Bylaw 19.8 stipulates that if a student-athlete that is permitted to play via a court restraining order has his or her case reversed, the NCAA Management Council can require that the records of the athlete as well as the records of the team, in games in which the ineligible athlete played, be "vacated or stricken."
The Management Council also has the authority to strike team victories, to penalize the school by preventing them from attending any number of NCAA championships and to access financial penalties, including the possible forfeiting of the school's share of television revenue."
Based on this, again, Memphis has the right to sit him, judge ruling on eligibility be damned.
And there is no "flawed assumption".
You've been essentially making the argument that Memphis HAS to play Wiseman because a judge ordered he remain eligible via a restraining order. I'm simply asking you to provide a case example that leads you to think Memphis HAS to play him, legally. Not dress him, not keep him on scholarship, but PLAY him in a game.