Question for the Pack

Dawgbite

Heisman
Nov 1, 2011
9,522
10,550
113
Because I know we’ve got a drug dealer or two amongst us. Why do prescription drugs have one name but are called and marketed under another name. both are made up so why two names?
 

OopsICroomedmypants

All-Conference
Sep 29, 2022
2,173
2,974
113
The generic name is based on the chemical formula that went into making the drug when it was being researched and developed. The name brand is put on it by the FDA according to what I was told years ago when I was a drug dealer for Eli Lilly. New drugs have a patent life and use the Brand Name until the patent is expired, upon which any other company can produce it as a generic under it's original "generic" name.
 
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Villagedawg

All-Conference
Nov 16, 2005
2,317
2,343
113
The brand name is reserved for a time by the FDA for the company who used taxpayer money to research and develop the drug so that they can charge more and regain profits on what we invested by charging us more. It’s only fair. You know, capitalism! *
 
Nov 16, 2005
28,749
23,122
113
Because I know we’ve got a drug dealer or two amongst us. Why do prescription drugs have one name but are called and marketed under another name. both are made up so why two names?
It’s like herbicides. The actual name is based on the active ingredient or chemical and then there’s the commercial name given by the company that makes it.

Example: glyphosate is the active ingredient and is under various commercial names like Roundup, Buccaneer Plus, Touchdown etc.
 
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