OT: Baseball Oddity

Sep 29, 2005
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Is the idea that you can't have a pinchrunner unless you have a runner and that a player isn't a runner until he touches first base? Or is the idea that he abandoned his intentional walk by not touching first base? (In other words, is this call possible only because a pinch runner was inserted?)
Batter who got the intentional walk needs to complete the play. That means he needs to touch first. Treated like a runner missing a base. That is why they had to do an appeal play to have him called out.
 
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Retired711

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Batter who got the intentional walk needs to complete the play. That means he needs to touch first. Treated like a runner missing a base. That is why they had to do an appeal play to have him called out.
Thanks! But would you agree it would be different if the batter were injured on the way to first, just like the way a pinchrunner is inserted if a batter can't continue in the game if he is hit by a pitch?
 
Sep 29, 2005
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Thanks! But would you agree it would be different if the batter were injured on the way to first, just like the way a pinchrunner is inserted if a batter can't continue in the game if he is hit by a pitch?
Actually no, the batter still needs to complete the play. There was a college softball game a couple years ago where a girl hit a home run and blew out her knee rounding first, couldn't walk. The opposing team actually carried her around the bases and had her touch each base for it to count. Her team couldn't do that as there are rules against aiding a runner but nothing in the rule book about opposing team aiding a runner.
 
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All-American
Aug 1, 2001
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Actually no, the batter still needs to complete the play. There was a college softball game a couple years ago where a girl hit a home run and blew out her knee rounding first, couldn't walk. The opposing team actually carried her around the bases and had her touch each base for it to count. Her team couldn't do that as there are rules against aiding a runner but nothing in the rule book about opposing team aiding a runner.
"When an accident incapacitates a player or an umpire;

(A) If an accident to a runner is such as to prevent him from proceeding to a base to which he is entitled, as on a home run hit out of the playing field, or an award of one or more bases, a substitute runner shall be permitted to complete the play."

 

Retired711

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"When an accident incapacitates a player or an umpire;

(A) If an accident to a runner is such as to prevent him from proceeding to a base to which he is entitled, as on a home run hit out of the playing field, or an award of one or more bases, a substitute runner shall be permitted to complete the play."

I just want everyone to be clear that the rule you cite is in the major league rules:

https://img.mlbstatic.com/mlb-images/image/upload/mlb/hhvryxqioipb87os1puw.pdf
 
Sep 29, 2005
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RUmaz

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Ball hitting the rubber and then ball going into foul territory is a foul ball. It happened years ago in a Toms River South state playoff game. If I remember correctly Todd Frasier was playing in that game although it might have been one of his brothers. Believe it was a play that saved the game for TRS. Umpires had to discuss it but finally got the call correct.
 

Colbert17!

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I have truly never seen this before in such a big spot.
UNC/BC game and the UNC pitcher has a no-hitter in the last inning. BC has a runner at first with two out. The batter hits a line drive that hits the runner and he's called out. The UNC kids celebrate what they think is a no hitter but since the ball hit the runner he's called out but the batter is credited with a hit. No no-hitter.

 
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Sep 29, 2005
14,051
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I have truly never seen this before in such a big spot.
UNC/BC game and the UNC pitcher has a no-hitter in the last inning. BC has a runner at first with two out. The batter hits a line drive that hits the runner and he's called out. The UNC kids celebrate what they think is a no hitter but since the ball hit the runner he's called out but the batter is credited with a hit. No no-hitter.


That combination is truly an oddity. What a way to lose a no hitter but the rules call it a hit.
 

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All-American
Aug 1, 2001
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That combination is truly an oddity. What a way to lose a no hitter but the rules call it a hit.
Always thought they should change that rule. Can't believe some MLB player didn't decide to break up a no-hitter that way.
 

Retired711

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Always thought they should change that rule. Can't believe some MLB player didn't decide to break up a no-hitter that way.
I don't think a rule change is necessary. A runner cannot intentionally allowed himself to be hit to avoid a play being made. This rule arose in the 1950s when some clever baserunners decided to allow themselves to be hit by a potential double play ball. https://baseballrulesacademy.com/runner-is-hit-by-a-batted-ball-safe-or-out-it-depends/
 

Retired711

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There's always "acting" at the right time.
Let me put it this way: if the interference call is going to save a no-hitter, it's going to be called. Players don't try being hit to break up double plays because they know it will be called. It's not worth the pain of being hit by a ball traveling over 90 mph.
 

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Let me put it this way: if the interference call is going to save a no-hitter, it's going to be called. Players don't try being hit to break up double plays because they know it will be called. It's not worth the pain of being hit by a ball traveling over 90 mph.
Agree with what you say. I'm not trying to argue with you because you are right. Just sayin' it's a possibility.