For those unaware, when you get the mortgage there are different rates for first homes verse homes after your first. Really? Please explain. I practice transactional real estate law, and your statement has me confused. When you speak of "first homes verse [sic] homes after your first," are you speaking of a mortgage borrower's principal residence versus his or her second residence (e.g., a vacation home or rental property)? In that case, there would in fact be a (very) slightly lower rate for a principal residence. Or are you talking in terms of chronology, with the "first home" being the home purchased earliest in time and "homes after the first" being homes purchased later in time? A home purchased later in time could nonetheless be, from the moment it is purchased, the borrower's NEW principal residence. After all, people DO move from time to time. You must sign a document saying that you plan on your first home being your primary residence for at least 1 year. I'm not familiar with the 1 year requirement. I have no doubt it is included in the documentation for some mortgage loans, but I'm pretty sure that is not universal. I believe the borrower's affirmative covenant regarding the subject property being the borrower's residence is typically phrased without reference to a specific minimum period of time. You can't have more than one primary residence. By claiming both as primary residence she was trying to get a lower rate. That is fraud. While it is true that you can't have more than one principal residence at any one point in time, people can and do move, and one's principal residence can change over time. What would be really helpful information here is when did Ms. Cook sign the loan documents for these two mortgage loans? I'm guessing they were not signed contemporaneously. If they were signed some time apart from each other, there would be nothing illegal or even inappropriate in her making that same statement for each property. She may have moved. Facts like this are pretty easy to confirm, and also pretty foundational to any kind of case for loan fraud.
I get it, it's political, but at the same time it is totally justified. Unless you are in possession of facts that the general public does not have, you cannot know whether the "firing" of Ms. Cook is justified, much less "totally justified." Unless, of course, you believe anything and everything that comes out of Donald Trump's mouth. For example, who do you believe was elected President in November 2020? You can't have the people in charge of the system, gaming the system. She is properly fired with cause. I don't love it, but it is well within Trumps right to fire her and the cause is 100% legitimate.
It wasn't that long ago that democrats were saying "No one is above the law". They want a two tiered justice system. If you compare the exercise of the Pardon Power and the use (i.e., abuse) of prosecutorial discretion at the DOJ in the Biden Administration and the Trump Administration (either one, but most notably the second one), you would come to just the opposite conclusion. The invasion of John Bolton's home is just one more example of Trump's abuse of the justice system. Trump is a fascist.