Here's a question... do referees consciously or subconsciously give more calls to higher ranked teams or teams that are historically powerhouses? I would be curious to see a study on something like this. It comes up in every sport so is there any merit to the argument?
YES
Here are 4 examples just from our games vs. Bama
1. We're under center, take the snap and immediately spike the ball to stop the clock and get called for intentional grounding. This was during the first season where spiking the ball to stop the clock was allowed in college football.
2. Jay Barker gets hammered when he drops back to pass, ball goes bounding down the field 30 yards behind him. Ruled incomplete pass.
3. Bama has the ball, pile-up on the goal line. MSU DB comes out of pile with ball and is tackled at the 4. Ruling on the field is fumble, MSU ball. After the replay booth review, it's a Bama TD. On the replay it LOOKS like the Bama player MAY have scored but you NEVER saw the ball cross the goal line. So much for 'indisputable evidence' when overturning an on the field call.
4. Bama player runs out of bounds down the sideline for about 10 yards, downfield ref even throws his hat acknowleding he has seen it. The same Bama player then makes the catch for a 50+ yd gain down to the 1. Ref then says he was forced out of bounds even though he was 5 or 6 feet from our DB when he went out of bounds on his own.